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Dr. Kenneth Noisewater
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 12:34 pm 
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Terry's Peeps wrote:
Douchebag wrote:
Don Tiny wrote:
Regular Reader wrote:
Yesterday on WBBM they also reported that corn was also being named as the official state vegetable as well.

Florida's is Terri Schiavo.

Image


W was nimble.

Obama and Trump would've gotten hit with it.


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Dr. Kenneth Noisewater
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 12:35 pm 
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Regular Reader wrote:
Terry's Peeps wrote:

W was nimble.

Obama and Trump would've gotten hit with it.

Obama would've caught that with his right and fired it back at the guy with his left.

And flattened the guy


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tommy
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 12:41 pm 
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between the gifs and the soulless libertarians, this message board is is finishing the year on a weak note
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Dr. Kenneth Noisewater
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 12:53 pm 
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tommy wrote:
between the gifs and the soulless libertarians, this message board is is finishing the year on a weak note


And spmack’s back.

Alright.

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FrankDrebin
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 12:54 pm 
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tommy wrote:
between the gifs and the soulless libertarians, this message board is is finishing the year on a weak note


Image
Image
Image

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Killer V
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 12:56 pm 
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Regular Reader
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 1:05 pm 
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newper wrote:
From what I know, this is all related to kiniyot. Kitniyot is a Hebrew word meaning legumes, but during the Passover holiday, the word kitniyot takes on a broader meaning to also include grains and seeds such as rice, corn, sunflower seeds, sesame seeds, soybeans, peas, and lentils.

According to Orthodox Ashkenazi laws, kitniyot may not be eaten during Passover by Jews. Although Reform and Conservative Ashkenazi Judaism currently allow for the consumption of kitniyot during Passover, there is a long-standing tradition in these and other communities is to abstain from their consumption.

However, as I recall, according to Torat Eretz Yisrael and Minhagei Eretz Yisrael, any Jew worldwide, regardless of origin, and despite the practice of their forefathers, may eat kitniyot on Passover, deeming it a practice rejected as an unnecessary precaution by Halachic authorities as early as the time of its emergence.



These kinds of things have fascinated me for years. Thanks for illuminating.

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Regular Reader
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 1:08 pm 
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Terry's Peeps wrote:
Killer V wrote:
Terry's Peeps wrote:
Regular Reader wrote:
Terry's Peeps wrote:

W was nimble.

Obama and Trump would've gotten hit with it.

Obama would've caught that with his right and fired it back at the guy with his left.

And flattened the guy


Image


Clearly aiming for the cameraman, who he would have flattened, had the catcher not jumped up.

:lol: :lol:


Clearly :lol: :lol: :lol:

As an aside that happened to me once at one of my oldest son's games. His coach still gives me the business behind that slip.

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spmack
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 1:21 pm 
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Dr. Kenneth Noisewater wrote:
tommy wrote:
between the gifs and the soulless libertarians, this message board is is finishing the year on a weak note


And spmack’s back.

Alright.

I'm trying to win the CFMB NIT March Madness bracket.

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Don Tiny
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 2:03 pm 
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newper wrote:
From what I know, this is all related to kiniyot. Kitniyot is a Hebrew word meaning legumes, but during the Passover holiday, the word kitniyot takes on a broader meaning to also include grains and seeds such as rice, corn, sunflower seeds, sesame seeds, soybeans, peas, and lentils.

According to Orthodox Ashkenazi laws, kitniyot may not be eaten during Passover by Jews. Although Reform and Conservative Ashkenazi Judaism currently allow for the consumption of kitniyot during Passover, there is a long-standing tradition in these and other communities is to abstain from their consumption.

However, as I recall, according to Torat Eretz Yisrael and Minhagei Eretz Yisrael, any Jew worldwide, regardless of origin, and despite the practice of their forefathers, may eat kitniyot on Passover, deeming it a practice rejected as an unnecessary precaution by Halachic authorities as early as the time of its emergence.

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tommy
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 3:49 pm 
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Dr. Kenneth Noisewater wrote:
tommy wrote:
between the gifs and the soulless libertarians, this message board is is finishing the year on a weak note


And spmack’s back.

Alright.

I hate that guy, too!!

(awesome avatar, though--I rank it at # 3 behind Terry's Peeps and JORR)
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sjboyd0137
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 4:09 pm 
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tommy wrote:
between the gifs and the soulless libertarians, this message board is is finishing the year on a weak note

Image

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FavreFan
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 4:39 pm 
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tommy wrote:
between the gifs and the soulless libertarians, this message board is is finishing the year on a weak note

“Soulless” :lol:

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Juice's Lecture Notes
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 5:16 pm 
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I was intrigued about the "transmission of obscene messages" line so I found the statute:

Quote:
Sec. 26.5-1. Transmission of obscene messages.
(a) A person commits transmission of obscene messages when he or she sends messages or uses language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral with the intent to offend by means of or while using a telephone or telegraph facilities, equipment or wires of any person, firm or corporation engaged in the transmission of news or messages between states or within the State of Illinois.
(b) The trier of fact may infer intent to offend from the use of language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


Holy fucking shit, especially the part in bold (though it all remains absolutely sickening). You cannot use obscenities and "immoral language" to intentionally offend someone, and your usage of obscenities and "immoral language" is also the proof that you had intent.

There's absolutely no way this is constitutional, right?
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Seacrest
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 5:56 pm 
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Juice's Lecture Notes wrote:
I was intrigued about the "transmission of obscene messages" line so I found the statute:

Quote:
Sec. 26.5-1. Transmission of obscene messages.
(a) A person commits transmission of obscene messages when he or she sends messages or uses language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral with the intent to offend by means of or while using a telephone or telegraph facilities, equipment or wires of any person, firm or corporation engaged in the transmission of news or messages between states or within the State of Illinois.
(b) The trier of fact may infer intent to offend from the use of language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


Holy fucking shit, especially the part in bold (though it all remains absolutely sickening). You cannot use obscenities and "immoral language" to intentionally offend someone, and your usage of obscenities and "immoral language" is also the proof that you had intent.

There's absolutely no way this is constitutional, right?


Don't worry, I deleted all of your PM's.

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Douchebag
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 6:01 pm 
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Juice's Lecture Notes wrote:
I was intrigued about the "transmission of obscene messages" line so I found the statute:

Quote:
Sec. 26.5-1. Transmission of obscene messages.
(a) A person commits transmission of obscene messages when he or she sends messages or uses language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral with the intent to offend by means of or while using a telephone or telegraph facilities, equipment or wires of any person, firm or corporation engaged in the transmission of news or messages between states or within the State of Illinois.
(b) The trier of fact may infer intent to offend from the use of language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


Holy fucking shit, especially the part in bold (though it all remains absolutely sickening). You cannot use obscenities and "immoral language" to intentionally offend someone, and your usage of obscenities and "immoral language" is also the proof that you had intent.

There's absolutely no way this is constitutional, right?

Shut the fuck up, burrito.

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I am not a legal expert, how many times do I have to say it?
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Juice's Lecture Notes
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 6:10 pm 
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Seacrest wrote:
Juice's Lecture Notes wrote:
I was intrigued about the "transmission of obscene messages" line so I found the statute:

Quote:
Sec. 26.5-1. Transmission of obscene messages.
(a) A person commits transmission of obscene messages when he or she sends messages or uses language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral with the intent to offend by means of or while using a telephone or telegraph facilities, equipment or wires of any person, firm or corporation engaged in the transmission of news or messages between states or within the State of Illinois.
(b) The trier of fact may infer intent to offend from the use of language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


Holy fucking shit, especially the part in bold (though it all remains absolutely sickening). You cannot use obscenities and "immoral language" to intentionally offend someone, and your usage of obscenities and "immoral language" is also the proof that you had intent.

There's absolutely no way this is constitutional, right?


Don't worry, I deleted all of your PM's.


Even the one where you accused me of posting a link to doxx-like information that I actually didn't post? Shame.

Good thing I didn't.
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Juice's Lecture Notes
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 6:12 pm 
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Douchebag wrote:
Juice's Lecture Notes wrote:
I was intrigued about the "transmission of obscene messages" line so I found the statute:

Quote:
Sec. 26.5-1. Transmission of obscene messages.
(a) A person commits transmission of obscene messages when he or she sends messages or uses language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral with the intent to offend by means of or while using a telephone or telegraph facilities, equipment or wires of any person, firm or corporation engaged in the transmission of news or messages between states or within the State of Illinois.
(b) The trier of fact may infer intent to offend from the use of language or terms which are obscene, lewd or immoral.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)


Holy fucking shit, especially the part in bold (though it all remains absolutely sickening). You cannot use obscenities and "immoral language" to intentionally offend someone, and your usage of obscenities and "immoral language" is also the proof that you had intent.

There's absolutely no way this is constitutional, right?

Shut the fuck up, burrito.


TRANSMISSION OF OBSCENE MESSAGES! TRANSMISSION OF OBSCENE MESSAGES!
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Douchebag
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 6:13 pm 
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Juice's Lecture Notes wrote:
TRANSMISSION OF OBSCENE MESSAGES! TRANSMISSION OF OBSCENE MESSAGES!

Call the IG. I'm sure you have him on speed dial.

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I am not a legal expert, how many times do I have to say it?
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Juice's Lecture Notes
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 6:14 pm 
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Douchebag wrote:
Juice's Lecture Notes wrote:
TRANSMISSION OF OBSCENE MESSAGES! TRANSMISSION OF OBSCENE MESSAGES!

Call the IG. I'm sure you have him on speed dial.


You don't want any of what Pat's getting.
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newper
PostPosted: Fri Dec 29, 2017 7:39 pm 
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Douchebag wrote:
Shut the fuck up, burrito.

I'm inferring intent to offend.

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Killer V
PostPosted: Sat Dec 30, 2017 9:30 am 
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Don Tiny wrote:
conns7901 wrote:
Quote:
Individuals can change their gender designation on their birth certificate without undergoing gender transition.


The fuck?

Yeah, I'm with you entirely on that. This whole fluid gender and > 2 genders is a special kind of nonsense. A person can call themselves a shovel if they want, I'm not obliged to pretend I don't think they're batshit loony.


My first thought too.

My wife did some legal work in a clinic set up to help transgenders this past summer so I asked her the deal.

Turns out that federal law is already cool with doing this on passports, visas, etc. The IL law was stricter in that regard. So, a man could be a woman on her passport, but not on her driver's license. So this brings the state in line with the feds.

Also, the surgery is really expensive and not everyone can afford it (as most insurances don't cover it). This creates a sort of elitist, class system where only the wealthy are able to fully transform and the poorer are just hosed (granted, that's how our current administration seems to like it). This "evens" the playing field.

And also, a "woman" driving a car (with a male DL) who gets pulled over by a cop inevitably gets harassed by said cop. (I know, hard to believe, no?). Many documented cases of this (unlike the popular bathroom rape defense which their is virtually no data to support).

Anyway, she got me to look at this in a different way, which helped me to understand the purpose a bit more.

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Frank Coztansa
PostPosted: Sat Dec 30, 2017 11:40 am 
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A "woman" who gets pulled over should get harassed as s/he was likely driving terribly.

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Curious Hair
PostPosted: Sat Dec 30, 2017 11:44 am 
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Must suck to pull a woman over, get the "are you sure I was over the speed limit, Officer?" but instead of leaning over and unbuttoning a blouse she just whips a dick out

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312player
PostPosted: Sat Dec 30, 2017 8:37 pm 
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I will never agree with this gender horseshit.


The more important issue is these shitbags begging for money, selling shitty items, banging on 5 gallon buckets in traffic... We need to execute these scumbags!!!


Traffic is already awful, we can't allow these degenerates to fuck it up intentionally.

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